Posted on September 23, 2020 11:10 am
 |  Asked by jaxk Panther
 |  59 views
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Hi Guys

May I bring this question as I couldn’t find clue on google.

I’m curious what is a matter different between config route-target in vrf and specific address-family
for example

vrf TEST
rd 1:1
route-target import vpn-ipv4 1:1
route-target export vpn-ipv4 1:1
neighbor 192.168.23.2 remote-as 65100

———————————————————————–
vrf TEST
rd 1:1
neighbor 192.168.23.2 remote-as 65100
neighbor 192.168.23.2 maximum-routes 12000
!
address-family ipv4
route-target import vpn-ipv4 1:1
route-target export vpn-ipv4 1:1
neighbor 192.168.13 activate

———————————————————————–

Dear expert, Could anyone let me know how both are different?

1
Answered on September 23, 2020 12:14 pm

Hi Jaxk,

Thanks for reaching out.

I have tested this in the lab and found out that there is no difference in issuing route-target commands under vrf TEST vs under specific address-family in vrf TEST.we can issue route-target commands either directly under VRF or under address-family ipv4|ipv6 for that VRF and there is no change in outputs for the same.

You can refer to the attached document(Route-target difference for Address Family vs VRF.pdf) for detailed test results before and after configuring route-target commands under address-family for vrf TEST.

 

Thanks,

Bhavana.

0
Posted by Alexis Dacquay
Answered on September 26, 2020 5:25 pm

Jaxk,
The difference is whether you want the route-target to be generic for the whole VRF/VPN, or specific to the address-family.
It can be useful to differentiate, within a VRF, between IPv4, IPv6, Multicast, or EVPN address families.

If you don't have such use case (multiple AF), then keep it simple and define the RT as global/generic for the VRF's BGP config context.

Regards,
Alexis

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